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What is the second stage of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack?


A) Exfiltration
B) Incursion
C) Discovery
D) Capture

E) B) and D)
F) B) and C)

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Which best practice does Symantec recommend with the Endpoint Detection and Response feature?


A) Create a unique Cynic account to provide to ATP
B) Create a unique Symantec Messaging Gateway account to provide to ATP
C) Create a unique Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) administrator account to provide to ATP
D) Create a unique Email Security.cloud portal account to provide to ATP

E) B) and C)
F) A) and B)

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Which kind of authentication credentials might Schannel congestion in IWA direct realms be an issue with? (Choose the best answer.)


A) NTLM
B) Surrogate credentials
C) Kerberos
D) Basic

E) C) and D)
F) A) and D)

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During a recent virus outbreak, an Incident Responder found that the Incident Response team was successful in identifying malicious domains that were communicating with the infected endpoints. Which two options should the Incident Responder select to prevent endpoints from communicating with malicious domains? (Select two.)


A) Use the isolate command in ATP to move all endpoints to a quarantine network.
B) Blacklist suspicious domains in the ATP manager.
C) Deploy a High-Security Antivirus and Antispyware policy in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) .
D) Create a firewall rule in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) or perimeter firewall that blocks traffic to the domain.
E) Run a full system scan on all endpoints.

F) None of the above
G) C) and D)

Correct Answer

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Which Email Security.cloud service will help filter Newsletter and Marketing emails?


A) Anti-Malware
B) Anti-Spam
C) Data Protection
D) Email Impersonation Control

E) A) and C)
F) B) and C)

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You have created a set of volumes within a disk group. What is the size of a volume that displays a length of 20480 in a vxprint output, on a Solaris system?


A) 10 megabytes
B) 15 megabytes
C) 20 megabytes
D) 25 megabytes

E) A) and B)
F) All of the above

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You are responsible for administering the Storage Foundation for Sybase server. You want to remove a mounted volume. What should you do first to ensure you are able to remove the mounted volume?


A) Remove the snapshot from the associated volume.
B) Recursively remove all plexes and subdisks.
C) Disassociate the snapshot from the associated volume.
D) Unmount the file system.

E) B) and C)
F) C) and D)

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What best describes Symantec Cynic?


A) An on-premises sandbox tool
B) A cloud sandbox tool
C) An on-premises signature based tool
D) A cloud signature based tool

E) C) and D)
F) B) and D)

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What happens when the ProxySG discovers a match for a rule in policy? (Choose the best answer.)


A) The ProxySG stops further processing in the layer containing the rule.
B) The ProxySG continues processing to see whether a further rule might negate the first rule.
C) It depends on the default policy configured.
D) The ProxySG stops further processing and executes the rule.

E) A) and B)
F) B) and C)

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You are responsible for managing two Storage Foundation 5.0 servers, Srv1 and Srv2. You want to permanently move a disk group from Srv1 to Srv2. However, the Srv2 already has a disk group with the same name. You need to move the disk group without making modifications to the data on the disks. You also need to ensure that the disk group import is permanent on Srv2. What should you do?


A) Unmirror and unencapsulate the disk group.
B) Import the disk group and rename it on Srv2.
C) Import the disk group on Srv2 as is.
D) Rename the disk group during deport operation.

E) B) and D)
F) A) and B)

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What is the role of Cynic within the Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) solution?


A) Reputation-based security
B) Event correlation
C) Network detection component
D) Detonation/sandbox

E) B) and C)
F) A) and D)

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In which two (2) locations should an administrator install the Symantec Installation Manager to facilitate the installation of IT Management Suite 8.1 on the target Notification Server? (Choose two.)


A) On the server that is to be the Notification Server to create an offline installation if this Notification Server has no internet access
B) On another server to remotely install it on the target Notification Server
C) On the server that is to be the Notification Server
D) It should be installed on a desktop class system to remotely install it on the target Notification Server
E) On another computer to create an offline installation package if the Notification Server has no internet access

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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What are the four principal policy checkpoints in the order they are reached, in a typical client HTTP request? (Choose the best answer.)


A) Client in, server out, server in, client out
B) Client in, server out, client out, server in
C) Client in, server in, client out, server out
D) Client in, server in, server out, client out

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

Correct Answer

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What is the main constraint an ATP Administrator should consider when choosing a network scanner model?


A) Throughput
B) Bandwidth
C) Link speed
D) Number of users

E) A) and D)
F) C) and D)

Correct Answer

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What is the default action for a non-PBE policy template?


A) Tag the subject line
B) Copy to administrator
C) Quarantine the message
D) Log only

E) A) and B)
F) None of the above

Correct Answer

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An administrator needs to ensure the following functionality for managed computers in an IT Management Suite 8.1 environment: - Monitoring hardware and software - Scheduling software installations and file updates - Collecting basic inventory information - Managing policies and packages Which components work together to provide this functionality for managed computers?


A) Notification Server and Symantec Management Agent
B) Symantec Management Console and Internet Gateway
C) Symantec Management Console and Symantec Management Agent
D) Notification Server and Internet Gateway

E) A) and D)
F) A) and C)

Correct Answer

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Which two questions can an Incident Responder answer when analyzing an incident in ATP? (Choose two.)


A) Does the organization need to do a healthcheck in the environment?
B) Are certain endpoints being repeatedly attacked?
C) Is the organization being attacked by this external entity repeatedly?
D) Do ports need to be blocked or opened on the firewall?
E) Does a risk assessment need to happen in the environment?

F) D) and E)
G) A) and B)

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How should an administrator apply a policy to Network Discover scans?


A) assign the policy group to the scan target
B) choose the correct policy in the scan target
C) assign the policy to the Network Discover Server
D) choose the correct scan target in the policy destination

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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What is the default TCP port for HTTP? (Choose the best answer.)


A) 20
B) 443
C) 80
D) 43

E) A) and B)
F) B) and D)

Correct Answer

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What tool, installed by default on the notification server, displays a runtime view of the errors, warning, information and trace messages that occur real time?


A) Altiris Perfmon
B) Altiris Profiler
C) Altiris Event Viewer
D) Altiris Log Viewer

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

Correct Answer

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